A 34 year old woman develops sudden right arm weakness and aphasia that resolve within 30 minutes. She has no vascular risk factors, but she recently completed a long international flight. Duplex ultrasonography of the legs demonstrates a deep venous thrombosis. Echocardiography with bubble study suggests intermittent right to left shunting across the atrial septum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Atrial septal defect
- B)Tetralogy of Fallot
- C)Patent foramen ovaleGABARITO
- D)Ventricular septal defect
- E)Coarctation of the aorta
Explicação
Patent foramen ovale is correct. A venous thrombus causing a transient ischemic attack after crossing into the systemic circulation indicates a paradoxical embolus, which occurs through a right to left shunt such as a PFO. A PFO is due to failure of the septum... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →