A 36-year-old man with a prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma presents with recurrent nephrolithiasis, recurrent peptic ulcers, and diarrhea. Vital signs: BP 158/95 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 16/min, temp 37°C. Laboratory studies show fasting serum gastrin 892 pg/mL (normal <100), serum calcium 11.8 mg/dL, and 24-hour urine free cortisol 285 mcg (normal <50). Imaging confirms a 1.2 cm pituitary adenoma. He denies headaches. Which syndrome best explains these findings?
- A)MEN 1GABARITO
- B)Von Hippel Lindau syndrome
- C)MEN 2A
- D)MEN 2B
- E)Li Fraumeni syndrome
Explicação
MEN 1 is characterized by tumors of the parathyroids, pituitary, and pancreatic endocrine organs. The combination of hyperparathyroidism causing kidney stones, prolactinoma, and gastrinoma causing recurrent ulcers is the classic triad. This syndrome is associa... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →