A 20-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of progressive left groin swelling. He reports the swelling increases noticeably when he coughs or strains. Physical examination reveals a 3 × 3 cm oval mass in the left inguinal region that is nontender and compressible. Additionally, there is painless left scrotal enlargement that fluctuates in size with Valsalva maneuver. The mass does not transilluminate. Temperature is 37.0°C, blood pressure is 118/74 mmHg, heart rate is 72/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Which of the following anatomical defect best explains this patient's clinical presentation?
- A)Failure of the processus vaginalis to obliterateGABARITO
- B)Obstruction of the left testicular vein
- C)Weakness of the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach triangle
- D)Excessive fluid accumulation within a closed tunica vaginalis
- E)Undescended left testicle with incomplete gubernacular attachment
Explicação
The clinical presentation of a painless, compressible inguinal mass that enlarges with Valsalva (coughing, straining) combined with scrotal swelling that also fluctuates with Valsalva is pathognomonic for an indirect inguinal hernia with a communicating hydroc... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →