A 52-year-old man with no seizure history presents with sudden-onset focal motor seizure involving the right arm lasting 2 minutes, followed by Todd's paralysis of the right arm lasting 24 hours. Brain MRI reveals a 3 cm mass in the left motor cortex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Hypoglycemia
- B)Acute ischemic stroke
- C)Idiopathic focal epilepsy
- D)Arteriovenous malformation
- E)Symptomatic seizure secondary to intracranial tumorGABARITO
Explicação
In adults presenting with first-time seizure, structural lesions (tumors, AVMs, strokes) must be excluded. A brain mass ipsilateral to the seizure focus (left motor cortex causing right arm seizure) is a strong predictor of symptomatic seizure. MRI finding of ... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →