A 29-year-old woman presents with 6 months of amenorrhea and bilateral galactorrhea. Pregnancy test is negative. She reports decreased libido and mild headaches. Vital signs show BP 118/76, HR 72, RR 14, Temp 37°C. Serum prolactin is elevated at 85 ng/mL (normal <25). TSH is normal, ruling out hypothyroidism. MRI demonstrates a 7-mm pituitary microadenoma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Somatotroph adenoma
- B)TSH secreting adenoma
- C)Corticotroph adenoma
- D)Craniopharyngioma
- E)ProlactinomaGABARITO
Explicação
A prolactinoma is the most common functioning pituitary adenoma. Elevated prolactin suppresses GnRH, causing amenorrhea, infertility, and decreased libido. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →