A 75 year old man develops sudden inability to see objects on the left side of his visual field. He has no motor deficits. He can write normally but cannot read what he has written. He has a history of poorly controlled hypertension. Physical examination shows left homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. Which lesion best explains these findings?
- A)Dominant occipital cortex and splenium of the corpus callosumGABARITO
- B)Dominant inferior frontal gyrus
- C)Lateral medulla
- D)Ventral pons
- E)Nondominant inferior parietal lobule
Explicação
Dominant occipital cortex and splenium of the corpus callosum is correct. Posterior cerebral artery infarction can cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing due to occipital ischemia. If the splenium is involved in the dominant hemisphere,... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →