A 29-year-old man presents with recurrent peptic ulcers from a gastrin-secreting pancreatic tumor. He has symptomatic nephrolithiasis secondary to hypercalcemia (calcium 11.2 mg/dL) and a pituitary adenoma causing galactorrhea. Vital signs show BP 138/88 mmHg, HR 92/min, RR 16/min, temp 37°C. Recent fasting glucose is 156 mg/dL. He denies headaches or visual changes. Which syndrome best explains this constellation of findings?
- A)MEN 1GABARITO
- B)Von Hippel Lindau syndrome
- C)Neurofibromatosis type 1
- D)MEN 2B
- E)MEN 2A
Explicação
MEN 1 is characterized by tumors of the parathyroid glands, pancreatic endocrine tissue, and pituitary. The combination of hyperparathyroidism, prolactinoma, and gastrinoma is the classic triad. It is caused by mutation of the menin tumor suppressor gene. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →