A 35-year-old man with membranous nephropathy presents with sudden left flank pain and gross hematuria. Vital signs show BP 158/96 mmHg, HR 102/min, RR 18/min, temperature 37.2°C, and SpO2 98% on room air. Laboratory studies reveal serum albumin 2.1 g/dL, serum creatinine 2.8 mg/dL (baseline 0.9), and 24-hour urine protein 8.5 g. Doppler ultrasound demonstrates impaired venous outflow from the left kidney with thrombosis. He denies fever or recent trauma. Which underlying glomerular disease most strongly predisposed this patient to this thrombotic complication?
- A)IgA nephropathy
- B)Type 1 renal tubular acidosis
- C)Membranous nephropathyGABARITO
- D)Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
- E)Acute interstitial nephritis
Explicação
Membranous nephropathy is correct. Nephrotic syndrome causes urinary loss of antithrombin III and other anticoagulant proteins, creating a hypercoagulable state. Membranous nephropathy is classically associated with renal vein thrombosis, which presents with f... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →