A 26-year-old woman with a 2-year history of recurrent episodes presents with fingers turning white, then blue, then red upon cold exposure. Episodes are painful and resolve with rewarming. Vital signs show BP 118/76, HR 82, RR 16, temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Physical examination reveals no digital ulcers or tissue necrosis. Nailfold capillaroscopy is normal. She denies arthralgia, dyspnea, or Raynaud's phenomenon in family members. Which diagnosis best explains her symptoms?
- A)Aortic dissection
- B)Thromboangiitis obliterans
- C)Raynaud phenomenonGABARITO
- D)Abdominal aortic aneurysm
- E)Peripheral arterial disease
Explicação
Raynaud phenomenon is correct. Episodic triphasic color change of the digits triggered by cold or emotional stress reflects reversible vasospasm of small arteries and arterioles. Primary Raynaud usually occurs in younger women and is not due to fixed obstructi... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →