A 45-year-old man with hypertension presents with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm for 2 hours. Vital signs: BP 165/95 mmHg, HR 112 bpm, RR 20, temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98% on room air. ECG shows ST-elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal ST-depression in I and aVL. Troponin I is elevated at 2.8 ng/mL. He denies shortness of breath. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
- A)Right coronary arteryGABARITO
- B)Left anterior descending artery
- C)Posterior descending artery
- D)Left main coronary artery
- E)Left circumflex artery
Explicação
ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior MI, most commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery (RCA). The RCA supplies the inferior wall of the heart in the majority of patients (right-dominant circulation). Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →