A 42-year-old woman presents with progressive muscle weakness, hypokalemia (K+ 2.8 mEq/L), and hypertension over 6 months. Laboratory studies reveal metabolic alkalosis, suppressed plasma renin activity, and elevated aldosterone levels despite sodium repletion. Imaging shows a 1.5 cm left adrenal mass. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Adrenal insufficiency with compensatory hypertension
- B)Pheochromocytoma with concurrent hypertension
- C)Cushing syndrome with hypertensive manifestations
- D)Secondary aldosteronism due to renal artery stenosis
- E)Primary aldosteronism due to aldosterone-producing adenomaGABARITO
Explicação
Primary aldosteronism (Conn syndrome) presents with hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and suppressed plasma renin activity—the key finding distinguishing it from secondary causes. The elevated aldosterone-to-renin ratio (>30) and adrenal adenoma ... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →