A 31-year-old woman in active labor develops sudden severe dyspnea, hypotension (BP 88/52), tachycardia (HR 128), and altered mental status. Vital signs show tachypnea (RR 32) and hypoxemia (SpO2 88%). She has diffuse bleeding from venipuncture sites and oozing from the vaginal vault. Laboratory studies reveal prolonged PT/PTT, thrombocytopenia (62,000/μL), and elevated D-dimer. She denies prior anticoagulation use. Which diagnosis best explains this clinical presentation?
- A)Pulmonary thromboembolism
- B)Eclampsia
- C)Peripartum cardiomyopathy
- D)Aspiration of gastric contents
- E)Amniotic fluid embolismGABARITO
Explicação
Amniotic fluid embolism is an obstetric catastrophe that causes abrupt hypoxemia, cardiovascular collapse, and DIC during labor or shortly after delivery. Fetal material entering maternal circulation triggers a severe inflammatory and procoagulant response. Th... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →