A 60-year-old man with a 10-year history of hypertension presents to the emergency department with acute onset of weakness and sensory changes. On examination, he has intact motor strength throughout, but demonstrates loss of proprioception and vibration sense below the right nipple line. Notably, he has preserved pain and temperature sensation on the right but loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side below the nipple line. MRI of the thoracic spine reveals a focal intramedullary lesion at the T4 level. Which spinal cord syndrome best explains this clinical presentation?
- A)Left anterior spinal artery syndrome
- B)Central cord syndrome
- C)Right-sided Brown-Séquard syndromeGABARITO
- D)Left-sided hemisection of the spinal cord
- E)Isolated dorsal column lesion on the right
Explicação
Brown-Séquard syndrome (hemisection) produces ipsilateral loss of motor strength and proprioception/vibration sense (dorsal column and corticospinal tract) with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation (spinothalamic tract crosses 1-2 levels rostra... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →