A 55-year-old man with newly diagnosed small-cell lung cancer presents with a single generalized tonic-clonic seizure. MRI brain reveals three hypodense lesions in the left temporal lobe consistent with metastases. Neurologic examination shows no focal deficits. CSF analysis is normal. The patient is started on levetiracetam 500 mg twice daily. Which of the following best describes the primary indication for antiepileptic prophylaxis in this patient?
- A)Reduction of intracranial pressure through decreased cerebral metabolic demand
- B)Prevention of recurrent seizures in patients with structural brain lesionsGABARITO
- C)Elimination of metastatic tumor burden to prevent future seizures
- D)Acute management of status epilepticus to prevent neurologic complications
- E)Enhancement of blood-brain barrier permeability to improve chemotherapy delivery
Explicação
Patients with brain metastases have a 20-30% risk of developing seizures due to disruption of normal cortical architecture, altered neuronal membrane stability, and local irritation from the tumor and surrounding edema. Antiepileptic prophylaxis with levetirac... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →