A 27-year-old woman presents with intermittent palpitations and atypical chest discomfort. She denies dyspnea on exertion. Vital signs: BP 118/76 mmHg, HR 92/min, RR 16/min, temp 37°C. Cardiac auscultation reveals a midsystolic click followed by a late systolic murmur at the apex. Echocardiography shows superior displacement of the mitral leaflet into the left atrium during systole. She takes no cardiac medications and has no history of hypertension or coronary disease. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
- A)Ventricular septal defect
- B)Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- C)Mitral regurgitation
- D)Aortic stenosis
- E)Mitral valve prolapseGABARITO
Explicação
Mitral valve prolapse is correct. A midsystolic click followed by a late systolic murmur at the apex is the classic auscultatory finding of mitral valve prolapse due to myxomatous degeneration of the valve. It is often benign but can predispose to mitral regur... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →