A 36-year-old woman with opioid use disorder presents 2 days after stopping oxycodone with rhinorrhea, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, piloerection, and mydriasis. Vital signs show HR 102 bpm, BP 138/88 mmHg, RR 18/min, temp 37.2°C. She denies suicidal ideation. Urine drug screen confirms opioid metabolites. She is started on buprenorphine, which relieves withdrawal symptoms but produces less euphoria than oxycodone. Which of the following properties best explains this medication's effect?
- A)Irreversible receptor blockade
- B)Greater volume of distribution
- C)Lower bioavailability
- D)Lower efficacy at the mu receptorGABARITO
- E)Higher therapeutic index
Explicação
Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at the mu opioid receptor. Partial agonists bind the receptor but generate a lower maximal response than full agonists such as oxycodone, so they can suppress withdrawal while producing less euphoria and respiratory depressio... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →