A 37-year-old woman with iron deficiency anemia (hemoglobin 6.2 g/dL) receives a packed red blood cell transfusion. Thirty minutes later, she develops fever (38.9°C), chills, and tachycardia (HR 105/min) but remains normotensive (BP 128/82 mmHg) with oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. She denies flank pain and urinalysis shows no hemoglobinuria. Direct antiglobulin test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
- A)Cytokines released from donor leukocytes during storageGABARITO
- B)Immediate complement mediated ABO incompatibility
- C)Pulmonary capillary leak due to donor anti leukocyte antibodies
- D)Type I hypersensitivity reaction to donor IgA in a patient with normal IgA levels
- E)Massive hemolysis due to glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Explicação
Cytokines released from donor leukocytes during storage is correct. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by recipient antibodies to donor leukocytes or by accumulated cytokines in the product. They present with isolated fever and chills withou... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →