A 37 year old woman develops sudden left arm weakness shortly after a long airplane flight. Duplex ultrasound of the leg reveals a deep venous thrombosis. Transthoracic echocardiography with bubble study shows intermittent right to left shunting across the atrial septum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Patent foramen ovaleGABARITO
- B)Persistent truncus arteriosus
- C)Ventricular septal defect
- D)Tricuspid atresia
- E)Atrial septal defect
Explicação
Patent foramen ovale is correct. A patent foramen ovale is a persistent flaplike communication that can allow paradoxical embolization when right sided pressure transiently exceeds left sided pressure. This explains how a venous thrombus can cause an arterial ... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →