A 7-year-old boy with no prior antibiotic allergies presents with a 3-day history of acute otitis media and is started on amoxicillin-clavulanate. On day 3 of therapy, his mother reports a widespread erythematous maculopapular rash affecting his trunk and extremities. The boy remains afebrile (37.2°C), and physical examination reveals no urticaria, angioedema, oral ulcers, or signs of systemic toxicity. Vital signs are stable: BP 105/68 mmHg, HR 92 bpm, RR 18, SpO2 98% on room air. Laboratory studies show WBC 8,200/μL with normal differential. The ear examination confirms resolving otitis media. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

1. A)Continue amoxicillin-clavulanate with close clinical follow-up, as this is consistent with a benign drug rash that typically self-resolvesGABARITO
2. B)Discontinue amoxicillin-clavulanate immediately and initiate a macrolide antibiotic to treat the underlying infection
3. C)Switch to a third-generation cephalosporin given the suspected beta-lactam hypersensitivity
4. D)Administer diphenhydramine and continue amoxicillin-clavulanate, as the rash is likely urticarial and responsive to antihistamines
5. E)Discontinue amoxicillin-clavulanate and initiate systemic corticosteroids for presumed drug reaction