A 57-year-old man with primary hyperaldosteronism presenting with hypertension (BP 168/98 mmHg), hyperkalemia (K+ 5.8 mEq/L), and metabolic alkalosis develops painful gynecomastia after starting spironolactone. His physician switches him to a related potassium-sparing diuretic with much less antiandrogen activity but preserved aldosterone receptor blockade. Notably, he denies gynecomastia regression on current therapy. Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed?
- A)Flutamide
- B)EplerenoneGABARITO
- C)Finasteride
- D)Hydrocortisone
- E)Spironolactone
Explicação
Eplerenone is a more selective aldosterone receptor antagonist than spironolactone and therefore causes fewer antiandrogen adverse effects such as gynecomastia. It remains useful for mineralocorticoid excess while minimizing endocrine side effects. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →