A 43-year-old man with chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia receives a platelet transfusion. Thirty minutes later, he develops fever (38.9°C), chills, and malaise. Vital signs show HR 108/min, BP 128/82 mmHg, RR 18/min, SpO2 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals no rash, no dyspnea, and urinalysis shows no hemoglobinuria. WBC differential demonstrates left shift. He takes no prophylactic antibiotics. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this transfusion reaction?
- A)IgE-mediated reaction to donor IgA
- B)Recipient antibodies reacting against donor leukocytes or cytokines in the blood productGABARITO
- C)Recipient anti-ABO antibodies causing complement activation
- D)Delayed anti-Rh antibody formation
- E)Pulmonary capillary leak due to donor anti-HLA antibodies
Explicação
Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction is the correct answer because isolated fever and chills without hypotension or hemoglobinuria most commonly reflect cytokines or recipient antibodies directed against donor leukocytes. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →