A 48 year old man comes to the office because of several weeks of lower extremity edema. He recently underwent evaluation for a solid renal mass. Urinalysis shows marked proteinuria without hematuria. Serum albumin is decreased. Renal biopsy shows diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, and electron microscopy demonstrates subepithelial immune complex deposits. Which of the following is the most likely renal diagnosis?
- A)Postinfectious glomerulonephritis
- B)Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
- C)Minimal change disease
- D)Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
- E)Membranous nephropathyGABARITO
Explicação
Membranous nephropathy is correct. This adult has nephrotic syndrome with subepithelial immune complex deposits and diffuse capillary wall thickening, the classic lesion of membranous nephropathy. It may be primary through antibodies against the phospholipase ... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →