A 57-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus started a new oral agent two months ago. He now presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and recurrent candidal balanitis. Vital signs: BP 138/82, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. Fasting glucose 156 mg/dL, HbA1c 7.8%. Urinalysis shows glycosuria and no ketones. He denies recent antibiotic use. The medication lowers blood glucose by inhibiting SGLT2-mediated renal glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubule. Which drug most likely caused these adverse effects?
- A)Pioglitazone
- B)EmpagliflozinGABARITO
- C)Sitagliptin
- D)Metformin
- E)Glyburide
Explicação
Empagliflozin is an SGLT2 inhibitor that blocks proximal tubular glucose reabsorption, causing glucosuria. That mechanism explains the recurrent mycotic infections, polyuria, and modest weight loss seen after starting the medication. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →