A 48-year-old obese woman with type 2 diabetes presents with a 3-month history of improved glycemic control and 8-pound weight loss after initiating a new antidiabetic agent. Vital signs show BP 128/82 mmHg, HR 72/min, RR 14/min, and temperature 37.0°C. Recent HbA1c is 6.8% (previously 8.2%). She denies nausea or gastrointestinal symptoms. The medication promotes glucose-dependent insulin secretion, decreases glucagon secretion, and slows gastric emptying. Which drug most likely explains her clinical response?
- A)LiraglutideGABARITO
- B)Pioglitazone
- C)Repaglinide
- D)Glimepiride
- E)Acarbose
Explicação
GLP-1 receptor agonists such as liraglutide enhance glucose dependent insulin release, suppress glucagon, slow gastric emptying, and promote weight loss. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →