A 61-year-old man with a history of anterior wall myocardial infarction 8 months ago presents with recurrent angina despite optimal medical therapy with aspirin 81 mg daily, atorvastatin 80 mg daily, and metoprolol. Vital signs are BP 128/82 mmHg, HR 92 bpm, RR 18/min, and SpO2 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals a displaced apical impulse. Laboratory studies show troponin I <0.04 ng/mL (normal). Transthoracic echocardiography demonstrates a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35% with anterior wall akinesis. Cardiac catheterization shows a patent left anterior descending (LAD) stent placed 8 months ago and a newly identified 90% stenosis in the right coronary artery (RCA) with TIMI 2 flow. Viability testing indicates viable myocardium in the RCA territory. Which of the following represents the most appropriate revascularization strategy?

1. A)Initiate inotropic support with milrinone and defer coronary intervention pending clinical stabilization over 4-6 weeks
2. B)Perform percutaneous intervention on the RCA stenosis to restore myocardial perfusion in the viable territoryGABARITO
3. C)Pursue re-intervention on the LAD stent to optimize anterior wall perfusion and prevent progression of systolic dysfunction
4. D)Continue maximal medical therapy alone without revascularization, given the patient's reduced ejection fraction and prior revascularization
5. E)Refer for urgent cardiac transplant evaluation given the presence of significant CAD and systolic dysfunction