A 55-year-old woman with a 10-year history of poorly controlled hypertension presents to the emergency department with acute onset severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, she has right-sided hemiplegia and mild aphasia. Vital signs: BP 188/118 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 16/min, temperature 37.1°C, SpO2 99% on room air. Non-contrast CT head shows a 3.2 cm hyperdense lesion in the left basal ganglia with surrounding low-attenuation edema and 8 mm midline shift. Laboratory studies reveal INR 1.0, platelet count 245,000/μL, PT/PTT normal, and hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL. The patient denies recent trauma, anticoagulant use, or antiplatelet therapy beyond aspirin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Acute ischemic stroke with hemorrhagic transformation
- B)Hypertensive emergency with posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES)
- C)Acute epidural hematoma from occult head trauma
- D)Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhageGABARITO
- E)Acute subdural hematoma with coagulopathy
Explicação
Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) is the correct diagnosis. The clinical presentation—acute severe headache, vomiting, focal neurologic deficit (hemiplegia/aphasia), and imaging findings (hyperdense basal ganglia lesion with surrounding edema and mid... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →