A 55-year-old woman with a 10-year history of poorly controlled hypertension presents to the emergency department with acute onset severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, she has right-sided hemiplegia and mild aphasia. Vital signs: BP 188/118 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 16/min, temperature 37.1°C, SpO2 99% on room air. Non-contrast CT head shows a 3.2 cm hyperdense lesion in the left basal ganglia with surrounding low-attenuation edema and 8 mm midline shift. Laboratory studies reveal INR 1.0, platelet count 245,000/μL, PT/PTT normal, and hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL. The patient denies recent trauma, anticoagulant use, or antiplatelet therapy beyond aspirin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A)Acute ischemic stroke with hemorrhagic transformation
  2. B)Hypertensive emergency with posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES)
  3. C)Acute epidural hematoma from occult head trauma
  4. D)Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhageGABARITO
  5. E)Acute subdural hematoma with coagulopathy

Explicação

Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) is the correct diagnosis. The clinical presentation—acute severe headache, vomiting, focal neurologic deficit (hemiplegia/aphasia), and imaging findings (hyperdense basal ganglia lesion with surrounding edema and mid... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →

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