A 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension starts a new antidiabetic medication. He presents with orthostatic lightheadedness, 3-kg weight loss, and recurrent candida balanitis. Vital signs: BP 128/72 supine, 110/66 standing; HR 88; RR 16; temperature 37°C. Serum glucose 142 mg/dL (improved from baseline 240 mg/dL); HbA1c 6.8%. Urinalysis demonstrates glucosuria with negative ketones. He denies polyuria or polydipsia. Which medication most likely explains these findings?
- A)EmpagliflozinGABARITO
- B)Glyburide
- C)Sitagliptin
- D)Pioglitazone
- E)Metformin
Explicação
Empagliflozin causes glucosuria by blocking proximal tubular glucose reabsorption, which leads to osmotic diuresis, weight loss, orthostatic symptoms, and genital mycotic infections. This cluster of adverse effects is highly characteristic of the SGLT2 inhibit... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →