A 68-year-old man with metastatic prostate adenocarcinoma (PSA 187 ng/mL) initiates continuous GnRH analog therapy. Vital signs are stable: BP 138/82, HR 76, RR 16, temp 37°C. The oncologist warns about transient testosterone elevation before pituitary downregulation occurs. Serum testosterone is currently 650 ng/dL. No gynecomastia is present. Which medication was most likely prescribed to address the initial testosterone surge and prevent clinical flare?
- A)LeuprolideGABARITO
- B)Finasteride
- C)Spironolactone
- D)Clomiphene
- E)Flutamide
Explicação
Continuous leuprolide initially stimulates pituitary gonadotropin release, causing a flare in testosterone, but then downregulates GnRH receptors and suppresses LH and FSH. That biphasic pattern is classic for continuous GnRH agonist therapy in prostate cancer... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →