A 44-year-old man receives an intramuscular injection in the inferomedial quadrant of the buttock. He subsequently develops marked weakness of knee flexion and ankle dorsiflexion with foot drop. Vital signs are stable (BP 128/82, HR 82, RR 16). Electromyography shows denervation potentials in the tibialis anterior and biceps femoris muscles. He denies bowel or bladder dysfunction. Which nerve was most likely injured?
- A)Superior gluteal nerve
- B)Sciatic nerveGABARITO
- C)Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
- D)Pudendal nerve
- E)Inferior gluteal nerve
Explicação
The sciatic nerve exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen inferior to piriformis and is endangered by injections placed in the wrong gluteal quadrant. Injury impairs hamstring function and most motor activity below the knee. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →