A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation not on anticoagulation presents with sudden, painless loss of vision in his left eye. Vital signs: BP 158/92 mmHg, HR 98 bpm (irregularly irregular), RR 16, temp 37.2°C. Funduscopic examination reveals retinal pallor with a characteristic cherry-red spot at the fovea. Carotid ultrasound shows no significant stenosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A)Temporal arteritis
  2. B)Acute angle-closure glaucoma
  3. C)Central retinal artery occlusionGABARITO
  4. D)Retinal detachment
  5. E)Optic neuritis

Explicação

Central retinal artery occlusion is the correct answer because embolic occlusion of the retinal circulation causes sudden painless monocular vision loss and a pale retina with a cherry-red fovea. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →

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