A 64 year old woman presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and orthopnea for 2 months. She had an inferior myocardial infarction 1 year ago. Cardiac examination reveals a high pitched holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex and radiating to the left axilla. Bibasilar crackles are present. Which of the following is the most likely valvular lesion?
- A)Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- B)Ventricular septal defect
- C)Mitral valve prolapse
- D)Aortic stenosis
- E)Mitral regurgitationGABARITO
Explicação
Mitral regurgitation is correct. A holosystolic blowing murmur at the apex that radiates to the axilla is classic for mitral regurgitation, and prior ischemic heart disease is a common cause due to papillary muscle dysfunction or left ventricular dilation. The... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →