A 34-year-old woman presents with acute vision loss in the right eye and pain with rightward gaze. Vitals: BP 118/76, HR 82, RR 16, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. Fundoscopic exam is normal. Visual evoked potentials show delayed latency. Brain MRI demonstrates multiple T2 hyperintense lesions in periventricular white matter; no gadolinium enhancement noted. CSF oligoclonal bands are positive. She denies fever or recent infections. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
- A)Adrenoleukodystrophy
- B)Myasthenia gravis
- C)Multiple sclerosisGABARITO
- D)Neurosyphilis
- E)Guillain-Barré syndrome
Explicação
Optic neuritis (vision loss with normal fundoscopy and VEP delays) combined with periventricular and juxtacortical white matter lesions on MRI is classic for multiple sclerosis. In a young woman, this presentation meets McDonald criteria for MS diagnosis. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →