A 56-year-old woman presents with progressive vision loss and floaters over 2 months. She reports no eye pain or photopsia. Vital signs are stable. Ophthalmologic examination reveals retinal hemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and optic disc swelling. Fundus photograph shows a dark, pigmented mass in the posterior uvea with a characteristic collar of pigment at its base. B-scan ultrasonography demonstrates a hypoechoic lesion with low internal reflectivity and no calcification. Which of the following is the most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults?
- A)Primary intraocular lymphoma
- B)Retinoblastoma
- C)Retinal astrocytoma
- D)Uveal melanomaGABARITO
- E)Metastatic choroidal disease
Explicação
Uveal melanoma is the most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults, typically presenting in middle-aged to older patients. The clinical findings are classic: posterior uveal location, dark pigmentation with a collar of pigment at the base, retinal hemo... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →