A 42-year-old woman with a 10-year history of relapsing-remitting MS presents with worsening cognitive impairment and progressive gait ataxia. Vital signs: BP 118/76, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98% on room air. Despite interferon-beta therapy, she has accumulated neurological disability with incomplete recovery between relapses. MRI demonstrates extensive white matter atrophy and cerebral atrophy. CSF oligoclonal bands are positive. No fever or active infection. Which MS phenotype has she most likely developed?
- A)Relapsing-remitting MS
- B)Progressive-relapsing MS
- C)Secondary progressive MSGABARITO
- D)Benign MS
- E)Primary progressive MS
Explicação
Secondary progressive MS (SPMS) develops in patients who initially present with relapsing-remitting disease (10-year history of relapses) and then transition to a progressive phase characterized by steady neurological decline without distinct relapses. The pro... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →