A 68-year-old man presents for routine evaluation. He reports feeling well with no syncope, palpitations, or dyspnea. Vital signs show BP 138/82 mmHg, HR 72 bpm, RR 16, temperature 37°C, and SpO2 98% on room air. He takes metoprolol for hypertension. ECG reveals a PR interval of 240 milliseconds with each P wave consistently followed by a QRS complex. Chest X-ray shows normal cardiac silhouette. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
- A)First-degree AV blockGABARITO
- B)Third-degree AV block
- C)Second-degree AV block, Mobitz II
- D)Sinoatrial exit block
- E)Second-degree AV block, Mobitz I
Explicação
A prolonged PR interval with 1:1 AV conduction is first-degree AV block. It reflects delayed conduction through the AV node or His-Purkinje system but does not cause dropped beats. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →