A 62-year-old man with hypertension and type 2 diabetes controlled on metformin and lisinopril presents with sudden-onset left leg pain and coldness. Vital signs: BP 158/92 mmHg, HR 98/min, RR 16/min, temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98% on room air. The left foot appears pale and mottled with absent femoral and popliteal pulses. Right lower extremity pulses are intact. Labs show elevated D-dimer at 2.1 mcg/mL. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
- A)Acute arterial thromboembolismGABARITO
- B)Cellulitis with vasodilation
- C)Compartment syndrome
- D)Deep venous thrombosis
- E)Raynaud's phenomenon
Explicação
Acute arterial thromboembolism presents with sudden onset of pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesias, and paralysis (5 Ps). The absent femoral pulse and acute presentation with no prior claudication history suggest acute occlusion rather than chronic disease... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →