A 42-year-old woman presents with severe dysarthria, diplopia, and ataxia that worsened over 3 weeks. She reports heat sensitivity and fatigue. Brain MRI shows multiple T2/FLAIR hyperintense lesions in the brainstem and cerebellar white matter. CSF oligoclonal bands are present. Serum NMO-IgG is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Infectious brainsitis
- B)Multiple sclerosisGABARITO
- C)Cerebellar ataxia-telangiectasia
- D)Paraneoplastic syndrome
- E)Stroke
Explicação
This patient has MS with brainstem and cerebellar involvement. The combination of dysarthria, diplopia, and ataxia (classic brainstem/cerebellar symptoms), MRI evidence of demyelinating lesions in white matter, positive CSF oligoclonal bands, and Uhthoff pheno... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →