A 32-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and weight gain. Five months ago, she was started on clozapine 300 mg daily for schizophrenia. She has a known history of hypothyroidism but reports non-adherence with levothyroxine for the past 6 months. Vital signs are stable. Visual fields are intact to confrontation. Laboratory studies show: TSH 18.2 μU/mL (normal 0.4–4.0), free T4 0.6 ng/dL (normal 0.8–1.8), prolactin 92 ng/mL (normal <25), and LH/FSH are at the lower limit of normal. Pituitary MRI shows normal gland size with no focal lesion. Which of the following best explains her galactorrhea and menstrual disturbance?

  1. A)Clozapine-induced dopamine antagonism causing elevated prolactin
  2. B)Primary prolactinoma with incidental hypothyroidism
  3. C)Untreated hypothyroidism causing TRH-mediated prolactin elevation and secondary hypogonadismGABARITO
  4. D)Ectopic prolactin-secreting tumor in the adrenal gland
  5. E)Thyrotroph pituitary adenoma with co-secretion of prolactin

Explicação

Untreated hypothyroidism is the primary driver of hyperprolactinemia in this patient. Severe hypothyroidism (TSH 18.2) leads to elevated TRH (thyrotropin-releasing hormone), which stimulates both TSH and prolactin secretion. Additionally, hypothyroidism impair... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →

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