A 39-year-old woman with newly diagnosed tuberculosis begins standard four-drug therapy including rifampin. Within days, she notices orange discoloration of her urine and contact lenses. Three weeks later, her seizure frequency increases despite adequate phenytoin dosing. Laboratory studies show elevated liver enzymes (AST 85 U/L) and sputum acid-fast bacilli staining remains positive. She denies fever, rash, or jaundice. Which antimycobacterial agent most likely explains her clinical findings?
- A)Pyrazinamide
- B)RifampinGABARITO
- C)Ethambutol
- D)Isoniazid
- E)Amphotericin B
Explicação
Rifampin inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase and is a potent cytochrome P450 inducer. It commonly causes orange discoloration of body fluids and can lower levels of many coadministered drugs. The combination of orange secretions and drug interactio... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →