A 34-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset gross hematuria, periorbital edema, and hypertension (BP 158/96). Vital signs show HR 88, RR 16, temperature 37.2°C, SpO2 98% on room air. She denies recent pharyngitis. Serum creatinine is 1.8 mg/dL (baseline 0.8), C3 complement level is low at 32 mg/dL, and 24-hour urine protein is 2.1 g. Urinalysis reveals dysmorphic RBCs with RBC casts. Renal biopsy demonstrates subepithelial "humps" on electron microscopy. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?

  1. A)Post-infectious glomerulonephritisGABARITO
  2. B)Alport syndrome
  3. C)Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
  4. D)IgA nephropathy
  5. E)Lupus nephritis

Explicação

Post-infectious GN classically presents with acute nephritic syndrome (hematuria, hypertension, edema), low C3 (complement activation), and pathognomonic subepithelial humps on EM. The clinical presentation fits post-streptococcal infection pattern. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →

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