A 4-month-old boy presents with an intermittent right groin bulge that becomes more prominent when crying. Vital signs show HR 140/min, RR 32/min, temperature 37.2°C, and normal oxygen saturation. Physical examination reveals a soft, reducible mass extending into the scrotum; the testis is palpable separate from the mass. Abdominal examination is benign without tenderness. Which of the following represents the most likely underlying anatomical defect?
- A)Failure of the processus vaginalis to closeGABARITO
- B)Weakness of the transversalis fascia medial to the inferior epigastric vessels
- C)Failure of midgut rotation
- D)Defect in the obturator canal
- E)Persistent vitelline duct
Explicação
An indirect inguinal hernia results from persistence of the processus vaginalis, allowing abdominal contents to pass through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →