A 5 year old boy is evaluated for generalized edema that began 4 days after a viral upper respiratory infection. Urinalysis shows 4+ protein with no blood. Serum albumin is low and cholesterol is elevated. Kidney biopsy on light microscopy would most likely appear normal. Which of the following best explains why this child usually responds well to glucocorticoids?
- A)The disease is caused by fibrin thrombi in glomerular capillaries
- B)The disease is caused by immune complex deposition in the subendothelial space
- C)The disease is mediated by T cell cytokine injury to podocytesGABARITO
- D)The disease is caused by inherited absence of type IV collagen
- E)The disease is caused by anti phospholipase A2 receptor antibodies
Explicação
Minimal change disease is the most common nephrotic syndrome in children and often follows an infection or immunization. It is thought to reflect T cell mediated cytokine injury that causes podocyte foot process effacement, which is why it is typically steroid... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →