A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic for evaluation of a small patch of hair over his lower back. Vital signs are normal (BP 110/68, HR 92, RR 20, Temp 98.6°F, SpO2 98%). Neurological examination reveals no motor or sensory deficits. Spinal MRI demonstrates a vertebral arch defect at L5 without herniation of meninges, neural tissue, or tethering. Urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Myeloschisis
- B)Myelomeningocele
- C)Anencephaly
- D)Spina bifida occultaGABARITO
- E)Meningocele
Explicação
Spina bifida occulta is the correct answer because it is a closed neural tube defect with intact dura and no herniation, often marked only by a tuft of hair or skin dimple over the lumbosacral spine. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →