A 68-year-old man with hypertension and a 40 pack-year smoking history presents to his primary care physician with a history of two episodes of left-sided facial droop and arm weakness over the past 6 weeks, each lasting 15-25 minutes before completely resolving. He has no residual neurological deficits on examination. Vital signs are BP 156/94 mmHg, HR 86/min, RR 16/min, SpO2 97% on room air. Carotid duplex ultrasound reveals 70% stenosis of the right internal carotid artery with peak systolic velocity of 230 cm/s. MRI of the brain with diffusion-weighted imaging shows no acute infarction and no prior territorial infarcts. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

1. A)Initiate dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel and arrange follow-up duplex ultrasound in 6 weeks
2. B)Refer for carotid endarterectomy after confirming with CT or MR angiographyGABARITO
3. C)Perform transcranial Doppler ultrasound to assess for right-to-left cardiac shunting
4. D)Initiate anticoagulation with apixaban and perform cardiac workup including echocardiography and Holter monitoring
5. E)Obtain CT angiography of the head and neck followed by carotid artery stenting