A 26-year-old woman with recent MS diagnosis presents with acute vision loss, optic nerve swelling on fundoscopy, and transverse myelitis. Vital signs: BP 118/76, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Labs show normal CSF oligoclonal bands. Brain MRI reveals minimal white matter lesions despite severe neurologic deficits. Serum aquaporin-4 and MOG antibodies are negative. She experiences recurrent attacks every 2-3 months and denies systemic symptoms. Which diagnosis best explains this clinical presentation?
- A)Behçet disease vasculitis
- B)Multiple sclerosis
- C)Idiopathic inflammatory demyelinating disease (seronegative)GABARITO
- D)Converted autoimmune encephalitis
- E)Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder
Explicação
This patient has seronegative inflammatory demyelinating disease (SIDD). Despite severe optic neuritis and myelitis with negative NMO-IgG and MOG antibodies, the clinical pattern of recurrent attacks with limited brain involvement distinguishes this from MS. S... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →