A 66-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a fasting glucose of 156 mg/dL and HbA1c of 8.2%. She is overweight (BMI 31) and seeks an oral agent that increases endogenous incretin activity without promoting weight gain. Her vital signs are stable (BP 138/82, HR 78, RR 16). Renal function is preserved with a creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL and eGFR of 72 mL/min/1.73m². Physical exam reveals no peripheral edema. She denies gastrointestinal symptoms. The prescriber selects a medication inhibiting the enzyme that degrades GLP-1. Which drug was most likely prescribed?
- A)SitagliptinGABARITO
- B)Acarbose
- C)Semaglutide
- D)Pioglitazone
- E)Glyburide
Explicação
Sitagliptin is a DPP 4 inhibitor that prolongs endogenous GLP 1 action, thereby increasing glucose dependent insulin secretion and reducing glucagon release. It is generally weight neutral, which distinguishes it from sulfonylureas and thiazolidinediones. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →