A 45-year-old man with no significant past medical history presents with sudden onset of a cold, painful left leg with skin mottling and diminished sensation. Exam shows absent pulses in the left lower extremity distal to the inguinal ligament. He reports palpitations and new-onset atrial fibrillation was noted on ECG. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Compartment syndrome
- B)Acute deep venous thrombosis
- C)Chronic peripheral arterial disease
- D)Acute arterial thromboembolism from atrial fibrillationGABARITO
- E)Acute aortic occlusion
Explicação
Acute arterial thromboembolism presents with sudden onset of a cold, painful extremity with absent pulses—the 6 P's (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesias, paralysis, poikilothermia). Atrial fibrillation is a major source of cardiac emboli. This is a vascu... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →