A 58-year-old multiparous woman presents with acute groin pain and a tender, nonreducible bulge inferior to the inguinal ligament. She reports nausea and abdominal distension. Vital signs show BP 142/88 mmHg, HR 102 bpm, RR 20/min, and temperature 37.2°C. Physical examination reveals absent bowel sounds. CT imaging demonstrates bowel loops within the femoral canal. She denies recent NSAID use. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Direct inguinal hernia
- B)Femoral herniaGABARITO
- C)Hydrocele
- D)Sports hernia
- E)Indirect inguinal hernia
Explicação
Femoral hernias pass through the femoral canal inferior to the inguinal ligament and are more common in middle aged and older women with a high risk of incarceration. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →