A 57-year-old man with primary hyperaldosteronism (plasma aldosterone 28 ng/dL, suppressed renin) presenting with hypertension (BP 162/98 mmHg) and hypokalemia (K+ 3.1 mEq/L) started spironolactone therapy. He develops painful gynecomastia within 6 weeks. His physician switches to a related aldosterone antagonist with minimal antiandrogen activity. The patient denies breast tenderness after the medication change. Which drug was most likely prescribed?
- A)Hydrocortisone
- B)Flutamide
- C)Finasteride
- D)EplerenoneGABARITO
- E)Spironolactone
Explicação
Eplerenone is a more selective aldosterone receptor antagonist than spironolactone and therefore causes fewer antiandrogen adverse effects such as gynecomastia. It remains useful for mineralocorticoid excess while minimizing endocrine side effects. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →