A 66-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with fasting glucose of 156 mg/dL and HbA1c of 8.2%. Vital signs show BP 138/82 mmHg, HR 78/min, RR 16/min, and temperature 37°C. She requests an oral agent that enhances endogenous incretin activity without promoting weight gain. She denies prior GLP-1 receptor agonist use. The prescribing physician selects a medication that inhibits the enzyme responsible for GLP-1 degradation. Which drug was most likely prescribed?
- A)Pioglitazone
- B)SitagliptinGABARITO
- C)Semaglutide
- D)Glyburide
- E)Acarbose
Explicação
Sitagliptin is a DPP 4 inhibitor that prolongs endogenous GLP 1 action, thereby increasing glucose dependent insulin secretion and reducing glucagon release. It is generally weight neutral, which distinguishes it from sulfonylureas and thiazolidinediones. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →